Daily Current Affairs 19 May 2026 – landmark developments: India and EU announced the FTA signing by year-end, the rupee hit a lifetime low of ₹96.39 against the dollar amid crude above $110, President Murmu promulgated an ordinance increasing Supreme Court judge strength from 34 to 38, and DRDO achieved a 1,200-second scramjet runtime. This comprehensive digest covers 14 key news items with Mains practice questions, MCQs, and analysis.
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- 1. India-EU Free Trade Agreement to be Signed by End of 2026
- 2. President Murmu Promulgates Ordinance to Increase Supreme Court Judge Strength to 38
- 3. Supreme Court: Even Under UAPA, Bail is Rule and Jail is Exception
- 4. CJI Urges All High Courts to Conduct Virtual Hearings
- 5. WHO Declares Ebola a Public Health Emergency of International Concern; India on Alert
- 6. UPSC Prelims 2026 Reforms: Provisional Answer Key, AI Face Authentication
- 7. Trump Delays Iran Attack; Iran Submits 14-Point Proposal
- 8. Crude Above $110, Rupee Hits Lifetime Low of ₹96.39
- 9. DRDO Achieves 1,200-Second Scramjet Runtime for Hypersonic Cruise Missile
- 10. Haryana Cabinet Clears 10 Industrial Policies Targeting ₹5 Lakh Crore Investment
- 11. Finance Ministry Approves ₹5,500 Crore Floating Solar Battery Storage Scheme
- 12. RBI Likely to Pay Record ₹2.7-3.3 Lakh Crore Dividend to Centre
- 13. Fuel Price Hikes Push Up Everyday Essentials Across Sectors
- 14. PSBs Record ₹1.98 Trillion Net Profit in FY26
- Prelims Quick Recap
- Facts for Prelims
- Places in News
- FAQs
- Previous Year Links
1. India-EU Free Trade Agreement to be Signed by End of 2026
Why in News? European Commission President Ursula von der Leyen announced on 18 May 2026 that the India-EU Free Trade Agreement (FTA) will be signed by the end of 2026 and operationalised at record speed, calling it the “mother of all deals.”
– The FTA framework was concluded in January 2026 during the India-EU Summit in New Delhi
– The deal will eliminate tariffs on over 90% of goods traded between India and the EU
– A comprehensive bilateral investment agreement is being fast-tracked as the next phase
– PM Modi was in Gothenburg, Sweden alongside Swedish PM Ulf Kristersson for the European Round Table for Industry
India and the EU resumed FTA negotiations in 2022 after a nine-year hiatus (talks stalled in 2013). The EU is India’s largest trading partner, with bilateral trade exceeding €120 billion annually. India already has FTAs with the UAE, Australia, and EFTA countries. The EU has been seeking deeper market access for its automobiles, wines, and dairy products, while India wants easier visa regimes for professionals and recognition of data security status.
Must note: This FTA is strategically significant for several reasons. First, it represents India’s pivot towards Europe amid de-risking from China and unpredictability in US trade policy. Second, the inclusion of a bilateral investment agreement signals India’s confidence in its regulatory framework after years of arbitration disputes (Vodafone, Cairn). Third, the FTA covers digital trade, data flows, and supply chain resilience—areas that go beyond traditional goods tariffs. However, concerns remain about the impact on domestic manufacturing, especially in automobiles, dairy, and pharmaceuticals where EU competition is strong. India must ensure its standards for data localization and digital sovereignty are protected.
flowchart TD A[India-EU FTA Framework Jan 2026] --> B[Tariff Cuts on >90% Goods] B --> C[Market Access: Auto, Dairy, Wine for EU] B --> D[Services Access: Visas, Data for India] C & D --> E[Bilateral Investment Agreement Fast-Tracked] E --> F[Supply Chain Resilience + Digital Trade] F --> G[UPSC Relevance: IR, Economy, Trade Policy]
GS Paper: GS-2 | Topic: International Relations | Sub-topic: Bilateral Trade Agreements
Q. Analyse the strategic significance of the proposed India-EU Free Trade Agreement for India’s foreign policy and economic objectives. (15 marks)
Framework: Economic benefits → Strategic de-risking from China → Technology transfer potential → Concerns on domestic industry → Way forward
Q. Which of the following best describes the ‘mother of all deals’ announced in May 2026?
(a) India-US defence procurement deal
(b) India-EU Free Trade Agreement to be signed by end of 2026
(c) India-China border resolution pact
(d) India-Russia energy security agreement
Ans: (b)
Explanation: Ursula von der Leyen called the India-EU FTA the ‘mother of all deals’ at the Gothenburg roundtable alongside PM Modi.
Source
Economic Times – Free trade pact by year-end: EU Chief
2. President Murmu Promulgates Ordinance to Increase Supreme Court Judge Strength to 38
Why in News? President Droupadi Murmu promulgated the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Ordinance, 2026 under Article 123, increasing the sanctioned strength of Supreme Court judges from 34 to 38 (including the CJI).
– The ordinance amends Section 2 of the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956 — replacing ‘thirty-three’ with ‘thirty-seven’ (excluding CJI)
– The move comes after the Union Cabinet approved the proposal, and Parliament was not in session
– Current backlog in the Supreme Court is over 93,000 pending cases
– The last amendment was in 2019 (from 31 to 33 judges excluding CJI)
– Two vacancies exist (Justice Gavai, Justice Bindal); three more judges retire in 2026 (Justices Maheshwari, Mithal, Karol)
Article 124(1) of the Constitution originally envisaged the Supreme Court with the CJI and “not more than seven judges,” with Parliament empowered to increase this number by law. The Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956 has been amended multiple times: 1960 (10→13), 1977 (13→17), 1986 (17→25), 2009 (25→30), and 2019 (30→33), excluding the CJI. The ordinance power under Article 123 allows the President to promulgate ordinances when Parliament is not in session and immediate action is necessary.
This is the first increase in SC judge strength in seven years, but must be seen in context. The 93,000+ pendency is alarming—the court is heading towards six figures. The Law Commission’s 245th Report (2014) had recommended that each judge should handle no more than 1,000 cases. With the new strength of 38, the court still falls short of international standards (the US Supreme Court handles ~7,000 petitions annually with 9 justices, all by certiorari). Critically, the government chose the ordinance route rather than introducing a bill in Parliament. While legally valid under Article 123 since Parliament’s Budget Session ended on April 18, this bypasses parliamentary scrutiny—a concern that must be noted for the polity dimension.
flowchart LR A[Art. 1241: Original 7 Judges] --> B[1956 Act: 10 Judges] B --> C[1960: 13 | 1977: 17 | 1986: 25 | 2009: 30 | 2019: 33] C --> D[2026 Ordinance: 37 + CJI = 38] D --> E[Article 123: President's Ordinance Power] E --> F[Must be approved by Parliament within 6 weeks of reassembly]
GS Paper: GS-2 | Topic: Polity | Sub-topic: Supreme Court, Ordinance-making power
Q. Examine the constitutional provisions regarding the increase in the strength of Supreme Court judges. Discuss the significance of the recent ordinance in addressing judicial pendency. (15 marks)
Framework: Article 124(1) + Article 123 → SC (Number of Judges) Act amendments → Pendency crisis → Ordinance route vs. Bill route → Judicial independence concerns
Q. Under which Article of the Constitution was the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Ordinance, 2026 promulgated?
(a) Article 72
(b) Article 123
(c) Article 213
(d) Article 368
Ans: (b)
Explanation: Article 123 empowers the President to promulgate ordinances when Parliament is not in session. Article 213 is for state Governors.
Source
The Hindu – President Murmu approves increase in SC judge strength
3. Supreme Court: Even Under UAPA, Bail is Rule and Jail is Exception
Why in News? A Supreme Court bench of Justices BV Nagarathna and Ujjal Bhuyan made a landmark observation that even under the Unlawful Activities Prevention Act (UAPA), bail is the rule and jail is the exception, while expressing “serious reservations” about its own earlier judgment denying bail to Umar Khalid and Sharjeel Imam.
– The observation came while granting bail to a Kupwara resident in a narco-terrorism case
– The bench cited NCRB data: 2-6% conviction rate in UAPA cases across India (2019-2023)
– In Jammu and Kashmir, the conviction rate was less than 1% (as low as 0% in 2019)
– The court ruled that the right to speedy trial under Article 21 applies to UAPA accused
– The bench noted the earlier Gulfisha Fatima judgment (January 2026) diluted a three-judge bench ruling on Article 21
UAPA was originally enacted in 1967 to deal with secessionist activities. It was significantly amended in 2019 to allow the government to designate individuals as terrorists (not just organizations). The Act has been criticized for its stringent bail provisions—Section 43D(5) imposes restrictions on granting bail if the court believes accusations are prima facie true. The National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) compiles crime statistics under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
This is a significant jurisprudential development for several reasons. First, a two-judge bench publicly doubted the correctness of another co-equal bench’s judgment (Gulfisha Fatima), which is unusual in judicial practice. The proper course would have been to refer the matter to a larger bench. Second, the reliance on NCRB conviction rate data (2-6%) makes a powerful empirical case against pre-trial detention—if 94-98% of UAPA accused are ultimately acquitted, keeping them in jail for years violates Article 21. Third, the observation that “bail is rule, jail is exception” even under UAPA challenges the prevailing interpretation of Section 43D(5). However, the court did not actually grant bail to Khalid and Imam—it only expressed reservations about the earlier denial, leaving the matter for a future hearing.
flowchart TD
A[UAPA Section 43D5: Bail Restrictions] --> B{Prima Facie True Test}
B -->|Bail Denied| C[Pre-trial Detention]
C --> D[NCRB Data: 94-98% Acquittal Rate]
D --> E[Right to Speedy Trial under Article 21]
E --> F[SC: Even under UAPA, Bail is Rule]GS Paper: GS-2 | Topic: Polity | Sub-topic: Judiciary, Fundamental Rights, Anti-terror laws
Q. “Even under UAPA, bail is the rule and jail is the exception.” Discuss this observation in light of the right to speedy trial under Article 21. (10 marks)
Framework: UAPA bail provisions → Article 21 → NCRB data → Balancing national security vs individual liberty
Q. Consider the following statements regarding UAPA:
1. The conviction rate in UAPA cases across India between 2019-2023 was 10-15%
2. Section 43D(5) of UAPA imposes restrictions on granting bail
3. UAPA was enacted in 1967
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Explanation: The NCRB data cited by SC showed conviction rate of 2-6%, not 10-15%.
Source
Economic Times – SC questions its own verdict denying bail to Khalid, Imam
4. CJI Urges All High Courts to Conduct Virtual Hearings
Why in News? Chief Justice of India Surya Kant announced he has requested all High Courts to conduct hearings online on Mondays and Fridays to reduce avoidable expenditure following PM Modi’s call amid the West Asia crisis.
– The Supreme Court decided on May 15 to hear cases exclusively via video conference on Mondays and Fridays
– Judges unanimously resolved to encourage car-pooling for optimum fuel utilisation
– Senior Advocate Mukul Rohatgi and Solicitor General Tushar Mehta praised the seamless integration of technology
– Mondays and Fridays are typically reserved for miscellaneous matters in the Supreme Court
The Supreme Court had successfully adopted virtual hearings during the COVID-19 pandemic (2020-2021) using the e-Supreme Court portal. The transition back to physical hearings was gradual. The current move to hybrid mode is significant as it comes not from a public health emergency but from a fuel conservation imperative. Article 145 of the Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to make rules for regulating its practice and procedure.
This development is noteworthy on two counts. First, it demonstrates how the West Asia conflict and resultant energy crisis are affecting every sphere of governance—even the judiciary. Second, it shows the permanence of the pandemic-era digital transformation in the judiciary. The e-courts project, launched under the e-Courts Mission Mode Project, has been a flagship initiative of the Department of Justice. However, this is a temporary measure tied to the oil crisis, not a permanent shift. As the CJI noted, Mondays and Fridays are “miscellaneous days”—indicating the court does not see this as suitable for all hearings. The digital divide remains a concern for litigants in remote areas with poor internet connectivity.
gantt title Judiciary's Digital Transformation Timeline dateFormat YYYY-MM section E-Courts Project Phase I (2007-2014) :2007-01, 2014-12 Phase II (2014-2023) :2014-01, 2023-12 Phase III (2023-2028) :2023-01, 2028-12 section Virtual Hearings COVID-19 Transition :2020-03, 2021-06 Hybrid Mode :2021-06, 2026-05 West Asia Crisis VC :2026-05, 2026-12
GS Paper: GS-2 | Topic: Polity, Governance | Sub-topic: Judiciary, e-Governance
Q. Discuss the role of technology in improving access to justice in India. How has the recent shift to virtual hearings contributed to judicial efficiency? (10 marks)
Q. The Supreme Court decided to hear cases through video conference on which days of the week?
(a) Saturday and Sunday
(b) Monday and Friday
(c) Tuesday and Thursday
(d) Wednesday and Saturday
Ans: (b)
Explanation: The SC decided to hear cases via VC on Mondays and Fridays, days reserved for miscellaneous matters.
Source
The Hindu – CJI urges High Courts to conduct virtual hearings
5. WHO Declares Ebola a Public Health Emergency of International Concern; India on Alert
Why in News? The World Health Organization (WHO) declared the Ebola Virus Disease outbreak in Central Africa as a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC), prompting India’s Health Ministry to initiate precautionary measures.
– India’s Union Health Ministry has initiated strict surveillance at ports and airports
– This marks the sixth PHEIC declaration since the International Health Regulations (IHR) 2005 came into force
– Previous PHEICs include: H1N1 (2009), Polio (2014), Ebola in West Africa (2014), Zika (2016), COVID-19 (2020), Mpox (2022)
– Ebola is a severe viral hemorrhagic fever with a case fatality rate ranging from 25% to 90%
The International Health Regulations (2005) are a legally binding instrument under the WHO Constitution. The Director-General declares a PHEIC when an extraordinary event constitutes a public health risk to other states through international spread and potentially requires a coordinated international response. India’s health security framework includes the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP), the National Health Mission, and the National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC).
India’s proactive response is critical given the country’s high volume of international traffic and the experience of COVID-19. The Ebola virus, first identified in 1976 near the Ebola River in the Democratic Republic of Congo, causes severe hemorrhagic fever. The current outbreak is in Central Africa. India must maintain robust screening at 21 international airports and major seaports. The PHEIC mechanism under IHR (2005) is a reminder of the importance of global health governance—a topic that has gained prominence in UPSC after COVID-19.
flowchart LR A[WHO declares PHEIC for Ebola] --> B[India Health Ministry Activates Protocols] B --> C[Surveillance at Ports/Airports] B --> D[Screening of Travelers from Affected Regions] C & D --> E[NCDC + IDSP Coordination] E --> F[Prevention of Imported Cases]
GS Paper: GS-2 | Topic: Governance, Health | Sub-topic: WHO, International Health Regulations
Q. What is a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC)? Discuss India’s preparedness in responding to such declarations with reference to the recent Ebola outbreak. (10 marks)
Q. The International Health Regulations (2005) are associated with which international organization?
(a) World Bank
(b) World Health Organization
(c) World Trade Organization
(d) United Nations Development Programme
Ans: (b)
Explanation: IHR (2005) is a legally binding instrument under the WHO Constitution for global health security.
Source
LiveMint – India takes precautionary measures as WHO declares Ebola emergency
6. UPSC Prelims 2026 Reforms: Provisional Answer Key, AI Face Authentication
Why in News? The Union Public Service Commission introduced major reforms for the Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2026, including same-day provisional answer key and mandatory AI-based face authentication at examination centres.
– Provisional answer key will be released immediately after the exam ends
– Objections can be submitted through the Online Question Paper Representation Portal (QPRep) until May 31, 2026
– Mandatory AI-based face authentication for all UPSC recruitment examinations
– Restrictions imposed on repeated attempts by serving officers
– The reform aims to improve transparency and confidence in the examination process
UPSC conducts 14 major examinations annually, including Civil Services, Engineering Services, and CAPF. The Prelims answer key was traditionally released only after the final results. The transparency demand gained momentum after the NEET-UG 2024 paper leak controversy, which led to the formation of the High-Level Committee of Experts (HLCE) under Dr. K. Radhakrishnan. The UPSC reforms align with the government’s broader push for technology-enabled governance transparency.
The same-day provisional answer key is a significant transparency reform. It allows candidates to estimate their scores immediately and file objections, reducing uncertainty and potential disputes. The AI-based face authentication addresses impersonation and malpractice concerns. However, aspirants must note that the answer key is ‘provisional’—final answer key after considering objections is what determines the result. The restriction on repeated attempts by serving officers addresses concerns about experienced candidates having an unfair advantage.
flowchart TD A[UPSC Prelims 2026 Reforms] --> B[Same-Day Provisional Answer Key] A --> C[AI Face Authentication at Centres] A --> D[Restrictions on Serving Officers' Attempts] B --> E[QPRep Objection Portal by May 31] E --> F[Final Answer Key Based on Objections] C --> G[Reduced Malpractice Risk] D --> H[Level Playing Field]
GS Paper: GS-2 | Topic: Governance | Sub-topic: Transparency, Reforms in Public Institutions
Q. Which of the following is NOT a reform introduced by UPSC for Prelims 2026?
(a) Provisional answer key immediately after exam
(b) AI-based face authentication at centres
(c) Introduction of negative marking for all questions
(d) Restrictions on repeated attempts by serving officers
Ans: (c)
Explanation: Negative marking already existed; it is not a new reform for 2026.
Source
Times of India – UPSC brings unprecedented reform to Prelims 2026
7. Trump Delays Iran Attack; Iran Submits 14-Point Proposal
Why in News? US President Donald Trump announced postponing a planned military attack on Iran at the request of Gulf leaders (Qatar, Saudi Arabia, UAE), as “serious negotiations” continue through Pakistan mediation, with Iran submitting a 14-point proposal.
– Trump said the attack was “scheduled for tomorrow” (May 19) but was being held off at the request of Gulf leaders
– Iran submitted a 14-point proposal through Pakistan covering ending the war and deferring nuclear talks
– The US proposed a five-point list demanding Iran keep only one nuclear site operational
– Iran’s new Persian Gulf Strait Authority (PGSA) manages Strait of Hormuz — all ships must seek clearance
– The US and Israel launched strikes on Iran on February 28; a fragile ceasefire was announced on April 8
– Washington has agreed to waive OFAC sanctions during the negotiation period
The Strait of Hormuz is a 33-km-wide waterway connecting the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman, through which nearly one-fifth of the world’s oil passed before the war. Iran’s strategic choke-point control has profound implications for global energy security. The war began on February 28, 2026, with US and Israeli strikes on Iranian nuclear and military facilities. Pakistan has been playing the role of mediator between Iran and the US.
The Iran-US conflict has three critical dimensions for India. First, energy security: India imports roughly 90% of its oil, and the closure of the Strait of Hormuz has driven crude above $110/barrel. Second, diaspora and remittances: over 8 million Indians work in the Gulf region. Third, strategic autonomy: India has traditionally maintained ties with both Iran (Chabahar port) and the US (defence partnerships). The negotiation dynamics—with Gulf states asking Trump to delay the attack—reveal that Gulf monarchies fear regional destabilisation more than they desire Iran’s military defeat. The Iraq War (2003) and its aftermath serve as a cautionary tale of what full-scale invasion of a major Muslim country entails.
flowchart TD
A[US-Israel Strikes Feb 28] --> B[Ceasefire April 8]
B --> C[Single Round of Talks in Islamabad April 11]
C --> D[Stalemate: Nuclear Program + Strait of Hormuz]
D --> E[Iran 14-Point Proposal via Pakistan]
D --> F[US 5-Point List: One Nuclear Site Only]
E & F --> G{Gulf Leaders Request Delay}
G --> H[Attack Postponed, Negotiations Continue]
GS Paper: GS-2 | Topic: International Relations | Sub-topic: West Asia, Energy Security
Q. Examine the implications of the Iran-US conflict on India’s energy security and strategic interests in the West Asia region. (15 marks)
Framework: Oil dependence → Strait of Hormuz → Gulf diaspora → Strategic autonomy → Chabahar vs US ties
Q. The Strait of Hormuz connects which two water bodies?
(a) Red Sea and Gulf of Aden
(b) Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman
(c) Mediterranean and Red Sea
(d) Black Sea and Mediterranean
Ans: (b)
Explanation: Strait of Hormuz connects the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman — a critical chokepoint for global oil trade.
Source
The Hindu – Trump says delaying Iran attack | The Hindu – Iran submits new proposal
8. Crude Above $110, Rupee Hits Lifetime Low of ₹96.39
Why in News? The Indian rupee fell to an all-time low of ₹96.39 against the US dollar (intraday) as crude oil prices surged above $110/barrel amid the escalating West Asia crisis, making it Asia’s worst-performing currency in 2026.
– Rupee touched lifetime low of ₹96.39/$ intraday, closing at record low of ₹97.35/$
– The 10-year benchmark bond yield closed at 7.13% — highest in almost seven weeks
– India imports ~90% of its crude oil requirements
– FPIs pulled out ₹27,000 crore in May 2026; cumulative FY26 outflows hit ₹2.2 trillion
– IEA warned that depleting oil inventory could push up food and fertiliser prices globally
– Rupee has weakened over 6% year-to-date — worst in Asia
India operates a managed floating exchange rate regime where the RBI intervenes to prevent excessive volatility. The rupee’s decline is driven by the widening trade deficit (higher import bill for oil, gold, and edible oils) and capital outflows as FPIs shift to US assets amid the “America First” policy. The RBI has been using its forex reserves (currently ~$580 billion) to defend the rupee.
This is a textbook case of external vulnerability. The rupee at ₹96/$ represents a depreciation of over 20% from pre-pandemic levels (~₹74/$ in January 2020). Every ₹1 depreciation against the dollar increases India’s oil import bill by approximately ₹10,000-12,000 crore annually. The bond yield spike to 7.13% means the government’s borrowing costs are rising—this will squeeze fiscal space exactly when the economy needs stimulus. However, the silver lining is that exporters, IT services, and remittance-dependent sectors benefit from a weaker rupee. The government’s position—attributing FPI outflows to the “America First” policy rather than India’s fundamentals—suggests they see this as cyclical rather than structural.
flowchart LR A[West Asia War → Crude > $110] --> B[Higher Import Bill] B --> C[Widening Trade Deficit] C --> D[Rupee Depreciation to ₹96.39/$] A --> E[FPI Outflows: ₹27,000 cr in May] E --> D D --> F[Higher Inflation: Fuel + Imported Goods] D --> G[Bond Yield at 7.13%] F & G --> H[Fiscal Space Squeeze]
CME: India’s External Vulnerability
- India imports 90% of crude oil and ~50% of natural gas (PIB)
- Forex reserves: ~$580 billion (RBI, April 2026)
- Trade deficit widened to $28 billion in April 2026 (Ministry of Commerce)
- FPI outflows in FY26: ₹2.2 trillion (NSDL data)
- Rupee depreciation since Jan 2020: ~30% (from ₹74/$ to ₹96/$)
GS Paper: GS-3 | Topic: Economy | Sub-topic: Exchange Rate, Inflation, Capital Flows
Q. Analyse the impact of the West Asia conflict on the Indian rupee and external sector stability. Suggest measures to mitigate the vulnerability. (15 marks)
Framework: Crude shock → Trade deficit → Rupee depreciation → RBI intervention → Diversification of energy sources → Export promotion
Q. India operates which type of exchange rate regime?
(a) Free floating
(b) Managed floating
(c) Fixed exchange rate
(d) Currency board
Ans: (b)
Explanation: India follows a managed floating exchange rate regime where RBI intervenes to manage volatility.
Source
Economic Times – Crude above $110 rattles Dalal Street | LiveMint – Rupee hits record low
9. DRDO Achieves 1,200-Second Scramjet Runtime for Hypersonic Cruise Missile
Why in News? The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) achieved a 1,200-second runtime of its actively cooled scramjet full-scale combustor at the Scramjet Connect Pipe Test (SCPT) facility in Hyderabad—a major breakthrough in hypersonic cruise missile technology.
– The hypersonic cruise missile exceeds Mach 5 (>6,100 km/h) for extended periods
– Built on the 700-second test conducted in January 2026
– Uses indigenously developed liquid hydrocarbon endothermic fuel and high-temperature Thermal Barrier Coating (TBC)
– Two types of hypersonic weapons: Hypersonic Glide Vehicles (HGVs) and Hypersonic Cruise Missiles (HCMs)
– The TARA glide weapon system (DRDO + IAF, May 7) converts unguided missiles to guided ones
A scramjet (Supersonic Combustion Ramjet) is an air-breathing engine that operates at hypersonic speeds (Mach 4-8+). Unlike a ramjet (Mach 2-4), scramjet allows supersonic combustion where air enters the engine at supersonic speeds. The Dual Mode Ramjet (DMRJ) can switch between ramjet and scramjet modes. ISRO has also been developing air-breathing propulsion technology to reduce launch vehicle costs.
Teacher’s Analysis
Must note: This is not just a technical achievement but a strategic one. Hypersonic missiles are difficult to detect and intercept because of their speed and manoeuvrability. Unlike ballistic missiles that follow a predictable trajectory, hypersonic cruise missiles can change course mid-flight. The 1,200-second runtime (20 minutes) suggests sustained hypersonic flight capability, which is globally matched only by the US, China, and Russia. The TARA system complements this by offering a low-cost precision strike option. These developments strengthen India’s deterrence capability, particularly relevant amid the Iran-US conflict and China’s military build-up in the Indian Ocean Region.
flowchart TD A[Air-Breathing Engines] --> B[Ramjet: Mach 2-4 Subsonic Combustion] A --> C[Scramjet: Mach 4-8+ Supersonic Combustion] A --> D[DMRJ: Dual Mode Switching] C --> E[DRDO 1,200-sec Test] E --> F[Hypersonic Cruise Missile > Mach 5] F --> G[Manoeuvrable + Difficult to Intercept] G --> H[Strategic Deterrence]
GS Paper: GS-3 | Topic: Science & Technology, Defence | Sub-topic: Hypersonic Technology
Q. What is a scramjet engine? Discuss the strategic significance of DRDO’s recent achievement in hypersonic cruise missile technology. (10 marks)
Q. A scramjet engine differs from a ramjet engine in that:
(a) Scramjet operates at subsonic combustion while ramjet operates at supersonic
(b) Scramjet operates at supersonic combustion while ramjet operates at subsonic
(c) Scramjet uses rockets for thrust while ramjet uses air-breathing
(d) Scramjet can only be used in ballistic missiles
Ans: (b)
Explanation: Scramjets maintain supersonic combustion throughout, while ramjets slow air to subsonic speeds before combustion.
Source
Indian Express – Knowledge Nugget: Scramjet Engine & Hypersonic Missiles
10. Haryana Cabinet Clears 10 Industrial Policies Targeting ₹5 Lakh Crore Investment
Why in News? The Haryana Cabinet, chaired by Chief Minister Nayab Singh Saini, approved 10 major industrial policies aimed at attracting ₹5 lakh crore in investments and creating 10 lakh jobs over five years.
– Make in Haryana Industrial Policy 2026: capital subsidy, employment generation subsidy raised to ₹1 lakh/employee/year for 10 years
– Haryana Electronics System Design and Manufacturing Policy 2026: 500-acre cluster at IMT Sohna, capital assistance 20-30% capped at ₹200 crore/unit
– Haryana IT/ITeS, AI and Emerging Technologies Policy 2026: Global AI Centre in Gurugram, advanced computing facility in Panchkula
– Haryana Data Centre Policy 2026: FAR relaxation up to 500%, dual-grid electricity supply
– Haryana Pharmaceutical and Medical Devices Policy: ₹10,000 crore investment target, women allowed night shifts
– Haryana Agri Business and Agro Processing Policy: ₹5,000 crore investment, 30,000 jobs
– Green industries, gaming, and global capability centres also covered
– New aggregator rules: CNG/Electric vehicles mandatory in NCR from January 1, 2026
Haryana contributes ~3.5% to India’s GDP. The National Capital Region (NCR) parts of Haryana, particularly Gurugram, are major economic hubs. The state has been competing with Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Gujarat for industrial investment. The policies are aligned with the BJP’s “sankalp patra” commitments ahead of the Punjab assembly elections.
This comprehensive policy package reflects competitive federalism where states compete for investment. The focus on sunrise sectors (AI, semiconductors, electronics, pharma) shows Haryana’s ambition to move beyond its traditional automotive and IT services base. The employment generation subsidy of ₹1 lakh per employee per year is a significant fiscal incentive. The mandatory CNG/EV rule for aggregator fleets in NCR aligns with the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) directives to combat Delhi’s air pollution.
mindmap root((Haryana Industrial Policy 2026)) AI & IT Global AI Centre Gurugram Advanced Computing Panchkula Centres of Excellence Electronics 500-acre Cluster IMT Sohna Capital Assistance 20-30% Semiconductors Focus Pharmaceuticals Rs 10,000 cr Target Women Night Shifts 20,000 Jobs Data Centres FAR Relaxation 500% Dual-Grid Power Agri-Processing Food Parks Cold Chains Rs 5,000 cr Investment
GS Paper: GS-3 | Topic: Economy | Sub-topic: Industrial Policy, State-level reforms
Q. Discuss the role of state governments in promoting industrial growth. How does the Haryana Industrial Policy 2026 reflect competitive federalism? (10 marks)
Q. Which of the following states is developing a 500-acre electronics manufacturing cluster at IMT Sohna?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Haryana
(d) Gujarat
Ans: (c)
Explanation: Haryana is developing the electronics cluster at IMT Sohna under its ESDM Policy 2026.
Source
The Hindu – Haryana Cabinet clears industrial policy
11. Finance Ministry Approves ₹5,500 Crore Floating Solar Battery Storage Scheme
Why in News? The Expenditure Finance Committee (EFC) of the Finance Ministry approved a ₹5,500 crore floating solar battery storage scheme to incentivise states for installing floating solar panels, amid the West Asia energy crisis.
– The scheme was approved against ₹6,700 crore sought by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE)
– Aim: incentivise states to install floating solar panels on water bodies and reservoirs
– Floating solar costs more than ground-mounted installations currently
– States with large water bodies (Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh) have pilot projects
– Cabinet approval is the next step
– MNRE Secretary Santosh Sarangi indicated the incentive mechanism aims to spread renewable deployment beyond traditional regions
India’s renewable energy target: 500 GW non-fossil fuel capacity by 2030. As of March 2026, India’s installed renewable capacity stands at ~195 GW. Floating solar technology involves mounting photovoltaic panels on floating structures on water bodies. The National Institute of Solar Energy estimates India’s floating solar potential at ~280 GW. The Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement Project (DRIP) and reservoirs under irrigation departments offer deployment sites.
Floating solar has three key advantages over ground-mounted solar: (a) no land acquisition issues, (b) water cooling improves panel efficiency by 5-10%, and (c) reduces water evaporation from reservoirs—a critical co-benefit for water-stressed regions. The reduced allocation (₹5,500 crore vs ₹6,700 crore sought) suggests the EFC found the cost projections optimistic. This scheme is particularly relevant as India accelerates renewable deployment to reduce fossil fuel import dependence—the West Asia crisis has underscored the urgency of energy transition.
pie title India's Path to 500 GW Renewable by 2030 "Solar (Ground-mounted)" : 200 "Solar (Floating)" : 20 "Wind" : 100 "Hydro" : 70 "Nuclear" : 30 "Other (Biomass, Small Hydro)" : 80
GS Paper: GS-3 | Topic: Environment, Energy | Sub-topic: Renewable Energy
Q. Discuss the potential of floating solar power in India. How can it contribute to India’s energy security and climate goals? (10 marks)
Q. Which ministry is primarily responsible for the floating solar battery storage scheme approved by the EFC?
(a) Ministry of Power
(b) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
(c) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(d) Ministry of Finance
Ans: (b)
Explanation: MNRE is the nodal ministry for the scheme, which was approved by the EFC of the Finance Ministry.
Source
Economic Times – MoF approves scheme for floating solar battery storage
12. RBI Likely to Pay Record ₹2.7-3.3 Lakh Crore Dividend to Centre
Why in News? The Reserve Bank of India is expected to make a record surplus transfer of ₹2.7-3.3 lakh crore to the central government for FY27, supported by gains from foreign exchange interventions and investment income.
– The surplus transfer would be decided through the revised Economic Capital Framework (ECF) approved by the RBI’s Central Board
– The transfer will help the government narrow the fiscal deficit, which risks widening due to higher import bills and a depreciating rupee
– Higher payout could arise from a potentially lower contingency buffer maintained by the RBI
The RBI transfers its surplus to the government under Section 47 of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. The Economic Capital Framework (ECF), based on the Bimal Jalan Committee recommendations (2019), determines the optimal level of risk provisions and surplus transfer. The RBI Board approved a revised ECF in 2024 that increased the contingency risk buffer to 6.5% from 5.5%.
A record RBI dividend is both good news and a concern. The good news: it gives the government fiscal headroom at a time of rising expenditure pressures (fuel subsidies, defence, welfare). The concern: the dividend is largely driven by RBI’s forex management gains (selling dollars to defend the rupee generates rupee profits) and higher interest income from government securities—these are not recurrent, sustainable sources. Over-reliance on RBI dividends for fiscal consolidation is risky. The revised ECF allows a lower contingency buffer, meaning the RBI is releasing accumulated provisions—a one-time gain.
flowchart LR A[RBI's Sources of Surplus] --> B[Forex Intervention Gains] A --> C[Interest on G-Secs] A --> D[Open Market Operations] B & C & D --> E[RBI Central Board Approves ECF] E --> F[Surplus Transfer to Government: ~₹2.7-3.3 Lakh Cr] F --> G[Fiscal Deficit Management]
GS Paper: GS-3 | Topic: Economy | Sub-topic: Monetary Policy, Fiscal Policy
Q. The RBI’s surplus transfer to the government is governed by which framework?
(a) Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act
(b) Economic Capital Framework
(c) Monetary Policy Framework Agreement
(d) Inflation Targeting Framework
Ans: (b)
Explanation: The ECF, based on the Bimal Jalan Committee, determines the RBI’s risk provisioning and surplus transfer.
Source
Economic Times – RBI likely to pay a big dividend to Centre
13. Fuel Price Hikes Push Up Everyday Essentials Across Sectors
Why in News? Rising fuel and commodity costs linked to the West Asia conflict are driving up prices across sectors—from milk and packaged foods to air-conditioners and restaurant meals—hitting household budgets.
– Petrol/diesel hiked by 90 paise/litre (second increase in a week); total ₹3/litre increase
– OMCs’ daily under-recoveries reduced from ₹1,000 crore to ₹750 crore after the hike
– Amul raised milk prices by ₹2/litre citing cattle feed and fuel cost increases
– Voltas and Blue Star raised AC prices by 5-13% due to copper costs and energy-efficiency norms
– FMCG hikes: Godrej (4-7%), Marico (6-7%), HUL (2-5%), Asian Paints (9-14% across two rounds)
– Gold import duty hiked to curb forex outflows
– Analysts expect fuel hikes to push headline CPI by 10-25 basis points
India’s retail inflation (CPI) was 4.8% in April 2026. The fuel price hike transmission mechanism works through: higher transport costs → higher food prices (especially perishables) → higher input costs for manufacturing → broad-based inflation. The IEA has warned that depleting global oil inventory could sustain price pressures.
This is a classic case of imported inflation—where external supply shocks (West Asia war) drive domestic price increases independent of domestic demand conditions. The pass-through to consumers is significant because: (a) fuel directly accounts for ~5% of CPI basket, and (b) fuel feeds into every other good through transport costs. The RBI, which has an inflation target of 4% (±2%), faces a policy dilemma: raising rates to control inflation will further slow growth, but not acting risks de-anchoring inflation expectations. The government’s decision to partially pass on the oil price burden (instead of fully absorbing it through OMC under-recoveries) shows fiscal constraints but has immediate electoral consequences.
flowchart TD A[West Asia War → Crude > $110] --> B[Fuel Price Hike ₹3/L] B --> C[Transport Costs Up] C --> D[Food Inflation: Milk + ₹2/L] C --> E[Manufacturing: FMCG +4-7%] C --> F[Durables: ACs +5-13%] B --> G[Gold Import Duty Hiked] D & E & F --> H[Headline CPI +10-25 bps] H --> I[RBI Policy Dilemma: Rate vs. Growth]
CME: Inflation Impact
- Petrol in Delhi: ₹98.64/litre (May 19). Diesel: ₹91.58/litre (Indian Express)
- OMCs’ daily losses before hike: ₹1,000 crore. After hike: ₹750 crore (LiveMint)
- CPI inflation: 4.8% (April 2026). Projected impact of fuel hikes: 10-25 bps addition
- Gold import duty increase: additional 5% (ET)
- Copper prices: up 25% YoY due to supply constraints (ET)
- Key policy: RBI MPC next meets in June 2026
GS Paper: GS-3 | Topic: Economy | Sub-topic: Inflation, Monetary Policy
Q. Explain the concept of imported inflation. How is the West Asia conflict transmitting inflationary pressures to the Indian economy? (10 marks)
Q. Which of the following is NOT a contributing factor to current inflationary pressures in India?
(a) Surge in crude oil prices
(b) Rupee depreciation
(c) Increase in GST rates
(d) Higher input costs for manufacturing
Ans: (c)
Explanation: There has been no recent increase in GST rates. The inflationary pressures are from imported sources (oil, rupee) and domestic pass-through.
Source
Economic Times – From milk to ACs, essentials getting costlier
14. PSBs Record ₹1.98 Trillion Net Profit in FY26
Why in News? Public Sector Banks reported an 11.2% year-on-year increase in net profit to ₹1.98 trillion for FY26, marking the fourth consecutive year of profitability, according to the Ministry of Finance.
– SBI posted highest-ever net profit of ₹80,032 crore (up 12.9% YoY)
– Bank of Baroda reported ₹20,021 crore profit, PNB ₹16,904 crore
– Improved asset quality: GNPA ratio declined to multi-year lows
– The government attributed the performance to sustained credit growth and operational efficiency
– This marks a turnaround from the NPA crisis era (2015-2019) when PSBs reported massive losses
The banking sector underwent significant reforms after the Asset Quality Review (AQR) by the RBI in 2015, which revealed massive NPAs. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016, the Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2017, and the PSB recapitalisation programme (Indradhanush 1.0 and 2.0) helped clean up bank balance sheets. The Enhanced Access and Service Excellence (EASE) reform programme has driven operational efficiency in PSBs.
The fourth consecutive year of record profitability is a remarkable turnaround story. In FY19, PSBs posted a combined loss of ₹85,000 crore. The recovery is driven by three factors: (a) IBC-led NPA resolution recovering thousands of crores, (b) strong credit growth (15-16%) driven by retail and corporate demand, and (c) improved net interest margins as banks repriced loans faster than deposits. However, the challenge remains sustaining this performance amid: rising NPAs in the microfinance segment, potential stress from the agriculture loan waiver announcements, and mark-to-market losses on the bond portfolio as yields rise.
gantt title PSB Profitability Recovery Timeline dateFormat YYYY section Crisis Era AQR 2015-16 NPA Recognition :2015, 2017 Indradhanush Recapitalisation :2017, 2020 IBC Resolution :2016, 2020 section Recovery Era First Profitable Year :2023, 2024 Record ₹1.98 Trillion Profit :2026, 2027
GS Paper: GS-3 | Topic: Economy | Sub-topic: Banking Sector Reforms
Q. Analyse the factors behind the turnaround in the profitability of Public Sector Banks in India. What challenges remain? (10 marks)
Q. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) was enacted in which year?
(a) 2014
(b) 2015
(c) 2016
(d) 2017
Ans: (c)
Explanation: IBC was enacted in May 2016 and has been instrumental in NPA resolution.
Source
Business Standard – PSBs’ net profit up 11.2% in FY26
Prelims Fact Sheet Table
| # | Topic | Key Fact | GS Paper |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | India-EU FTA | To be signed by end of 2026, will cut tariffs on >90% goods | GS-2 |
| 2 | SC Judge Strength | Ordinance under Article 123 increases strength from 34 to 38 | GS-2 |
| 3 | UAPA Bail | SC: Even under UAPA, bail is rule; 94-98% acquittal rate | GS-2 |
| 4 | CJI Virtual Hearings | SC to hear cases via VC on Mondays/Fridays to save fuel | GS-2 |
| 5 | WHO Ebola PHEIC | 6th PHEIC since IHR 2005; India on alert at ports | GS-2 |
| 6 | UPSC Prelims Reforms | Same-day answer key, AI face authentication at centres | GS-2 |
| 7 | Iran-US Negotiations | Trump delays attack; Iran 14-point proposal via Pakistan | GS-2 |
| 8 | Rupee at Record Low | ₹96.39/$, worst in Asia, down 6% in 2026 | GS-3 |
| 9 | DRDO Scramjet | 1,200-second runtime for hypersonic cruise missile | GS-3 |
| 10 | Haryana Industrial Policy | ₹5 lakh crore investment target, 10 policies | GS-3 |
| 11 | Floating Solar Scheme | ₹5,500 crore approved for floating solar + battery storage | GS-3 |
| 12 | RBI Dividend | Record ₹2.7-3.3 lakh crore surplus transfer expected | GS-3 |
| 13 | Fuel Price Inflation | ₹3/litre hike; milk, ACs, FMCG prices up across sectors | GS-3 |
| 14 | PSB Profit FY26 | ₹1.98 trillion net profit, 4th consecutive year | GS-3 |
| # | Topic | Key Fact | Source | GS |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | Eurofighter Typhoon | Spanish Air Force performed aerobatics using 100% SAF in a Eurofighter during IIT Bombay Techfest | PIB | GS-3 |
| 2 | Janjatiya Garima Utsav 2026 | Month-long celebration from 10 May to 9 June; Adi Vaani AI platform supports Gondi, Mundari, Bhili, Santali | PIB | GS-2 |
| 3 | Dam Safety | 6,628 dams registered on DHARMA platform under Dam Safety Act, 2021; 13,000 inspections annually | PIB | GS-3 |
| 4 | Heatwave Advisory | Ministry of Ayush under DGHS issued advisory including Sheetali Pranayama, cooling traditional drinks | PIB | GS-2 |
| 5 | PSB Profits | SBI highest-ever net profit ₹80,032 crore in FY26; PSB aggregate ₹1.98 trillion | BS | GS-3 |
| 6 | CCI’s 100th Combination Order | Competition Commission of India approved 100th M&A deal under amended Combination Regulations | PIB | GS-3 |
| 7 | Scramjet vs Ramjet | Ramjet: Mach 2-4 (subsonic combustion). Scramjet: Mach 4-8+ (supersonic combustion) | IE | GS-3 |
| 8 | GSTR-3B Reforms | Govt likely to disable manual edits in GSTR-3B once auto-populated from GSTR-1 and GSTR-2B | BS | GS-3 |
Places in News
| Place | Location | Significance | Why in News? |
|---|---|---|---|
| Tumakuru | Karnataka, India | Industrial city, second-largest district in Karnataka (27 lakh pop.) | Karnataka govt held ‘Pragathiyatta Karnataka’ convention, distributing benefits to 1.4 lakh beneficiaries |
| IMT Sohna | Haryana, India | Electronics manufacturing cluster | Haryana approved 500-acre electronics cluster under ESDM Policy 2026 |
| Strait of Hormuz | Between Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman | Global energy chokepoint (1/5 of world’s oil passed pre-war) | Iran’s PGSA controls transit; key sticking point in US-Iran talks |
| Panchkula | Haryana, India | Administrative city, Chandigarh tri-city | Haryana to set up advanced computing facility here |
| Gothenburg | Sweden | Major industrial city on west coast | Hosted European Round Table for Industry with PM Modi, Ursula von der Leyen |
| Shivamogga | Karnataka, India | Malnad region, central Karnataka | Advocates protest demanding HC circuit bench |
| Kupwara | Jammu & Kashmir, India | Border district, Line of Control | SC granted bail to Kupwara resident in narco-terrorism UAPA case |
| Central Africa | Africa region | Ebola-affected region | WHO declared Ebola PHEIC; India on alert |
FAQs
Q1. What is the India-EU Free Trade Agreement and why is it significant for UPSC?
The India-EU FTA, announced on May 18, 2026, aims to eliminate tariffs on over 90% of goods traded between India and the European Union, making it one of the largest trade deals in history. It is significant because the EU is India’s largest trading partner (€120 billion+ annually), the deal includes a fast-tracked investment agreement, and it signals India’s strategic pivot towards Europe amid US-China trade tensions and supply chain reconfiguration.
Q2. Why did President Murmu issue an ordinance to increase Supreme Court judge strength?
President Murmu used her ordinance power under Article 123 to increase SC judge strength from 34 to 38 because Parliament was not in session (Budget Session ended April 18, 2026) and immediate action was needed to address the growing pendency of over 93,000 cases. The ordinance amends Section 2 of the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956 and must be approved by Parliament within six weeks of its reassembly.
Q3. What did the Supreme Court observe about bail under UAPA?
A Supreme Court bench observed that even under UAPA, “bail is the rule and jail is the exception,” citing NCRB data showing 94-98% acquittal rates in UAPA cases nationally. The court expressed serious reservations about its own January 2026 judgment denying bail to Umar Khalid and Sharjeel Imam, emphasising that the right to speedy trial under Article 21 applies to all accused, including those under special laws.
Q4. What is a scramjet engine and how is it different from a ramjet?
A scramjet (Supersonic Combustion Ramjet) is an air-breathing engine that maintains supersonic combustion at hypersonic speeds (Mach 4-8+), whereas a ramjet slows incoming air to subsonic speeds before combustion (Mach 2-4). DRDO’s successful 1,200-second scramjet test is a major breakthrough for India’s hypersonic cruise missile programme, enabling missiles that exceed Mach 5 and can manoeuvre mid-flight, making them difficult to intercept.
Q5. How is the West Asia crisis affecting the Indian rupee?
The West Asia crisis has driven crude oil above $110/barrel, and since India imports ~90% of its oil, the higher import bill has widened the trade deficit and put pressure on the rupee, which hit a record low of ₹96.39/$ on May 19, 2026. Additionally, FPIs have pulled out ₹27,000 crore in May 2026, driven by the “America First” policy, further weakening the rupee.
Q6. What reforms has UPSC introduced for Prelims 2026?
UPSC has introduced three major reforms: (1) provisional answer key released immediately after the exam for transparency, (2) mandatory AI-based face authentication at examination centres to prevent impersonation, and (3) restrictions on repeated attempts by serving officers to ensure a level playing field. Objections can be filed through the QPRep portal until May 31, 2026.
Q7. What is the significance of the floating solar battery storage scheme?
The ₹5,500 crore scheme aims to incentivise states to install floating solar panels on water bodies and reservoirs, which has advantages like no land acquisition, 5-10% higher efficiency due to water cooling, and reduced water evaporation. It is part of India’s push to achieve 500 GW non-fossil fuel capacity by 2030 and reduce dependence on fossil fuel imports amid the West Asia energy crisis.
Q8. What are the key features of Haryana’s new industrial policies?
The 10 policies cover AI, semiconductors, electronics manufacturing, pharmaceuticals, data centres, agro-processing, gaming, and green industries. Key features include: a 500-acre electronics cluster at IMT Sohna, Global AI Centre in Gurugram, capital subsidy of 20-30% for electronics, employment subsidy of ₹1 lakh per employee per year for 10 years, and mandatory CNG/EV aggregator fleets in NCR from January 1, 2026.
Previous Year Questions
- UPSC Prelims 2024: Which of the following is a key provision of the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA)? (a) It does not allow detention without trial / (b) It allows the government to designate individuals as terrorists / (c) It provides for automatic bail after 90 days / (d) All of the above — Ans: (b)
- UPSC Prelims 2023: Which of the following countries shares the Strait of Hormuz? (a) Iraq / (b) Kuwait / (c) Oman / (d) Yemen — Ans: (c)
- UPSC Mains 2024: Discuss the role of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) in resolving the Non-Performing Assets (NPA) crisis in India.
- UPSC Mains 2023: Explain the significance of the President’s ordinance-making power. Under what circumstances can it be exercised?
- UPSC Prelims 2022: Which of the following is NOT a renewable energy source? (a) Floating Solar / (b) Tidal Energy / (c) Natural Gas / (d) Geothermal — Ans: (c)
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Devendra Upadhyay
Devendra Upadhyay is a UPSC mentor and the founder of Soham IAS. With years of experience guiding civil services aspirants, he specialises in helping working professionals and first-generation learners build structured, self-directed preparation strategies. His PACE Method framework — Plan, Absorb, Consolidate, Execute — has helped hundreds of aspirants bring clarity and consistency to their UPSC journey. He offers limited 1-on-1 mentorship sessions through Soham IAS.
