UPSC Current Affairs 14 May 2026 – Daily Digest for Prelims & Mains 2026
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9. World Inequality Report 2026: India Findings
Top 10% earners capture 58% of national income; bottom 50% receive only 15%. Wealth: top 10% hold 65%, top 1% hold 40%. Female labour participation stagnant at 15.7%. Global findings: top 10% earn more than remaining 90%; bottom 50% earn <10% of global income.
Social stratification, poverty, inclusive growth, gender inequality.
Q15. According to World Inequality Report 2026, India’s top 10% earners capture what percentage of national income?
(a) 48%
(b) 58%
(c) 68%
(d) 78%
(b) 58%
Discuss the factors behind persistent income and wealth inequality in India. What policy measures can address this? (GS-1, 10 marks)
10. AMOC Slowdown and Climate Implications for India
Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation (AMOC)—the global ocean ‘conveyor belt’—could weaken by up to 59% by 2100 due to Arctic ice melt. This is a climate tipping point. For India: shifts tropical rain belt southward, weakens southwest monsoon, reduces moisture from Arabian Sea, threatens food security.
Climatology, oceanography, monsoon mechanism, climate change impacts.
Q16. AMOC is a system of ocean currents in which ocean?
(a) Pacific
(b) Atlantic
(c) Indian
(d) Southern
(b) Atlantic
How does the slowdown of AMOC threaten the Indian summer monsoon? Examine its implications for India’s food security. (GS-1, 10 marks)
GS-2: Polity, Governance & Social Justice
4. Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill: Lok Sabha Expansion to 850 Seats
The Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill, 2026, introduced in Lok Sabha on April 16, proposes expanding the Lok Sabha from 543 to a maximum of 850 seats (815 from states + 35 from UTs). Key features: (a) Adopts ‘delimitation-first’ model—decouples seat redistribution from requirement of a fresh census; (b) Allows delimitation based on 2011 Census data via a Delimitation Commission chaired by a former Supreme Court judge; (c) Amends Articles 81, 82, 170 to remove the 1971 Census-based freeze on seats (introduced by 42nd Amendment 1976, extended by 84th Amendment 2001); (d) Enables implementation of 33% women’s reservation in Lok Sabha and state assemblies; (e) Redefines ‘population’ across constitutional provisions to mean figures from a census determined by Parliament. Three companion Bills: Delimitation Bill 2026, Union Territories Laws (Amendment) Bill 2026.
The freeze on Lok Sabha seats based on 1971 Census was originally a population stabilisation incentive. Southern states that achieved lower population growth may lose proportional representation. Current ratio of Lok Sabha to Rajya Sabha (2.2:1) will change to 3.3:1, increasing LS powers in joint sittings.
Constitutional amendments, parliamentary representation, delimitation, federalism, women’s reservation, Election Commission.
Q7. Which Constitutional Amendment first froze Lok Sabha seats based on the 1971 Census?
(a) 84th Amendment, 2001
(b) 87th Amendment, 2003
(c) 42nd Amendment, 1976
(d) 73rd Amendment, 1992
(c) 42nd Amendment, 1976
Q8. The Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill increases Lok Sabha maximum strength to:
(a) 750
(b) 800
(c) 850
(d) 900
(c) 850
Discuss the constitutional and federal implications of the 131st Amendment Bill. How does delimitation based on 2011 Census affect southern states? (GS-2, 15 marks)
5. NEET-UG 2026 Cancelled: Paper Leak Crisis
The NTA cancelled the NEET-UG 2026 examination (held May 3) following an alleged paper leak. CBI registered an FIR under criminal conspiracy, cheating, theft, the Prevention of Corruption Act, and the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024. A pre-circulated ‘guess paper’ matching ~120 chemistry questions was allegedly sold in Sikar, Rajasthan, for up to ₹7.3 lakh. CBI formed special investigation teams dispatched to multiple locations. A re-test will be scheduled. This follows the NEET-UG 2024 paper leak where CBI filed 5 charge sheets against 45 accused. The Public Examinations Act 2024 provides for 3-10 years imprisonment.
NEET-UG is the single largest medical entrance exam globally (~24 lakh candidates). The 2024 leak led to SC intervention and the formation of a high-level committee on exam reforms. The 2026 cancellation is the first complete cancellation of NEET-UG.
Examination governance, NTA reforms, Public Examinations Act 2024, paper leak crisis, right to education, accountability mechanisms.
Q9. The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024 provides for maximum imprisonment of:
(a) 5 years
(b) 7 years
(c) 10 years
(d) 14 years
(c) 10 years
Q10. NEET-UG is conducted for admission to which stream?
(a) Engineering
(b) Law
(c) Medical and Dental
(d) Management
(c) Medical and Dental
Examine the systemic failures in India’s examination system highlighted by repeated paper leaks. Suggest a comprehensive reform framework. (GS-2, 15 marks)
6. Sabarimala Review: Essential Religious Practices Doctrine
In the ongoing Sabarimala review hearing, the Central government submitted that all religious practices are presumed protected under Article 25(1) unless they violate public order, health, and morality. The 2018 Supreme Court judgment (4:1) lifted the ban on entry of women aged 10-50 into the Sabarimala Ayyappa temple. Review petitions questioned whether the ‘essential religious practices’ (ERP) test is valid, and whether religious freedom or gender equality should prevail. The court is also examining the broader applicability of the ERP doctrine across religions.
Article 25 guarantees freedom of conscience and free profession, practice, and propagation of religion, subject to public order, morality, and health. The ERP doctrine was established in Shirur Mutt case (1954) and refined in Durgah Committee, Ajmer (1961) and ISKCON (2004) cases.
Fundamental Rights (Article 25-28), judicial review, secularism, gender justice, religious freedom, doctrine of essentiality.
Q11. Article 25 of the Constitution guarantees freedom of religion subject to:
(a) Public order, morality, and health
(b) Only public order
(c) Only morality
(d) No restrictions
(a) Public order, morality, and health
Q12. The ‘Essential Religious Practices’ doctrine was first established in:
(a) Kesavananda Bharati case
(b) Shirur Mutt case
(c) Berubari Union case
(d) Golaknath case
(b) Shirur Mutt case (1954)
Critically analyse the Essential Religious Practices doctrine. Can religious practices be tested on the grounds of constitutional morality? (GS-1/GS-2, 15 marks)
7. Supreme Court Mandates Panic Buttons in Public Transport
The Supreme Court directed all states and UTs to install panic buttons and GPS-based tracking devices in all public transport vehicles to enhance women’s safety. The order builds on the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways’ 2016 notification and the Justice Verma Committee recommendations after the 2012 Nirbhaya case. States directed to ensure compliance with regular monitoring reports.
Judicial activism, women’s safety, public policy implementation, fundamental rights (Article 21), police reforms.
Q13. The 2012 Nirbhaya case led to which of the following?
(a) Formation of Justice Verma Committee
(b) Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013
(c) Faster trial and stricter punishment for sexual offences
(d) All of the above
(d) All of the above
8. 16th Finance Commission Report 2026-31
Key recommendations: Vertical devolution retained at 41% of divisible pool. New ‘Contribution to GDP’ criterion with 10% weight in horizontal formula. No revenue-deficit grants. Total grants of ₹9.47 lakh crore for local bodies (₹7,91,493 crore) and disaster management (₹2,04,401 crore). State fiscal deficit capped at 3% of GSDP. Off-budget borrowings strictly discontinued.
Fiscal federalism, centre-state financial relations, Article 280, Finance Commission.
Q14. The Finance Commission is constituted under which Article?
(a) Article 280
(b) Article 270
(c) Article 275
(d) Article 282
(a) Article 280
GS-3: Economy & Agriculture
1. Cabinet Approves ₹2.6 Lakh Crore Kharif MSP Package
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) approved MSP for 14 kharif crops for the 2026-27 marketing season with a total outlay of approximately ₹2.6 lakh crore. Paddy MSP was hiked by ₹72 to ₹2,441 per quintal. The highest absolute increase was for sunflower seed (₹622/quintal), followed by cotton (₹557), nigerseed (₹515), and sesamum (₹500). MSPs are set at a minimum of 50% above production costs, consistent with the 2019 Union Budget commitment. Expected procurement is 824.41 lakh metric tonnes. The Cabinet also approved a ₹37,000 crore coal gasification push and energy security measures.
MSP is the guaranteed price paid to farmers for their produce, announced before each sowing season. The CACP recommends MSPs based on cost of production, market trends, and farmer welfare. The policy aims to ensure remunerative prices and encourage crop diversification away from water-intensive cereals toward pulses, oilseeds, and nutri-cereals.
Agriculture economics, MSP mechanism, CACP role, food security, crop diversification, farmer welfare policies.
Q1. The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) recommends MSP for how many crops?
(a) 22
(b) 23
(c) 24
(d) 25
(b) 23
Explanation: CACP recommends MSP for 23 crops including 14 kharif, 6 rabi, and 3 commercial crops.
Q2. Which of the following received the highest absolute MSP increase for kharif 2026-27?
(a) Cotton
(b) Sunflower seed
(c) Nigerseed
(d) Sesamum
(b) Sunflower seed
Discuss the role of MSP in ensuring food security and farmer welfare. Critically examine the challenges in MSP implementation. (GS-3, 15 marks)
– Introduction: MSP as price assurance mechanism since 1965 Green Revolution era.
– Role: Price stability, incentivising foodgrain production, farmer income support (PM-AASHA).
– Challenges: Limited procurement reach (only 6% farmers benefit), skew toward paddy/wheat (Punjab-Haryana focused), environmental costs (groundwater depletion), WTO subsidy limits (AMS bound at 10% of value of production).
– Way Forward: Expand procurement infrastructure, promote crop diversification via higher MSP for millets/pulses, direct income support (PM-KISAN) supplement.
– Conclusion: MSP remains vital but needs reform to achieve sustainable, inclusive agricultural growth.
CACP Annual Report 2025-26; Economic Survey 2025-26 (Agriculture Chapter); NITI Aayog’s “Doubling Farmers’ Income” report.
2. Agni-5 with MIRV Technology: India’s Nuclear Triad Strengthened
India successfully flight-tested an advanced Agni-5 ballistic missile equipped with MIRV (Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle) technology from Dr APJ Abdul Kalam Island, Odisha. Named ‘Mission Divyastra’, the missile can carry 3-6 independently targetable nuclear warheads over a range of 5,000+ km. MIRV technology enables a single missile to strike multiple targets simultaneously and overwhelm enemy missile defence systems. DRDO replaced first-stage hydraulics with electromechanical actuators, reducing weight by 20%. India joins the US, UK, Russia, China, and France in possessing MIRV capability. The proposed Agni-VI (10,000+ km range) is under development.
The Agni missile series (Agni-I to Agni-VI) forms India’s land-based leg of the nuclear triad (air, land, sea). Agni-V is canister-launched for mobility and survivability. MIRV capability was first demonstrated in March 2024. The test follows China’s MIRV deployment and Pakistan’s声称 test.
Defence technology, India’s nuclear doctrine (NFU), strategic deterrence, DRDO achievements, Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR).
Q3. Which of the following countries does NOT possess confirmed MIRV-capable missile systems?
(a) United States
(b) Japan
(c) China
(d) France
(b) Japan
Q4. ‘Mission Divyastra’ is associated with which missile system?
(a) Agni-I
(b) Agni-III
(c) Agni-V
(d) Agni-VI
(c) Agni-V
Explain the significance of MIRV technology for India’s nuclear deterrence. How does it impact regional strategic stability? (GS-3, 15 marks)
– Introduction: MIRV as force multiplier, complicates adversary BMD, 2nd strike assurance.
– Significance: Overwhelms missile defence (e.g., China’s BMD network), multiple target engagement, survivability via canister launch, credible minimum deterrence.
– Strategic Stability: Encourages arms race if adversary responds; debated utility in India’s NFU doctrine; CBMs needed.
– Regional Context: China’s nuclear modernisation, Pakistan’s tactical nukes (Nasr), India’s defensive posture.
– Conclusion: Strengthens deterrence but must be paired with arms control dialogue.
DRDO Annual Report; India’s Nuclear Doctrine (2003); SIPRI Yearbook 2025.
3. Labour Codes Rules Notified
The four Labour Codes—Code on Wages 2019, Industrial Relations Code 2020, Social Security Code 2020, and Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code 2020—became effective from November 21, 2025, rationalising 29 central labour laws. Key rules notified in 2026 include: (a) All workers now have a statutory right to minimum wage; (b) Gig and platform workers covered under social security for the first time; (c) Aggregators to contribute 1-2% of annual turnover for gig worker welfare; (d) National Floor Wage set; (e) ESI threshold at ₹21,000/month; (f) Definition of ‘wages’ clarified as 50% ceiling on allowances; (g) Fixed-term employment provisions formalised.
Labour is in the Concurrent List (List III, Schedule VII). The codes consolidate 29 laws into 4 to improve ease of compliance while expanding worker protection. The codes were passed by Parliament in 2019-2020 but implementation was delayed by consultations and COVID-19.
Labour reforms, social security, gig economy, federalism (Centre-state coordination), ease of doing business, worker welfare.
Q5. Which of the following is NOT one of the four Labour Codes?
(a) Code on Wages, 2019
(b) Code on Industrial Relations, 2020
(c) Code on Minimum Wages, 1948
(d) Code on Social Security, 2020
(c) Code on Minimum Wages, 1948
Q6. What percentage of annual turnover must aggregators contribute for gig and platform worker welfare?
(a) 0.5-1%
(b) 1-2%
(c) 2-3%
(d) 3-5%
(b) 1-2%
Analyse the impact of the four Labour Codes on India’s formal-informal workforce dynamics. Will they improve ‘ease of doing business’ while protecting worker rights? (GS-2/GS-3, 15 marks)
GS-3: Environment & Science-Technology
11. GalaxEye’s Drishti: World’s First OptoSAR Satellite
Bengaluru startup GalaxEye launched ‘Mission Drishti’ on May 3, 2026 — the world’s first OptoSAR (Optical + Synthetic Aperture Radar) satellite. 190 kg satellite, India’s largest privately built EO satellite, integrates EO and SAR sensors for all-weather, day-night imaging. Applications: disaster management, defence, agriculture, urban planning.
Space technology, private sector in space (IN-SPACe), startups, Earth observation, disaster management.
Q17. OptoSAR technology combines which two imaging systems?
(a) Optical and Infrared
(b) Optical and Synthetic Aperture Radar
(c) Radar and Lidar
(d) Multispectral and Hyperspectral
(b) Optical and Synthetic Aperture Radar
12. Rusty-Spotted Cat Spotted in Aravallis
Rusty-spotted cat (Prionailurus rubiginosus)—world’s smallest wild cat—photographed with kitten in Faridabad’s Kot village, confirming breeding outside protected areas in Delhi-NCR. Listed Schedule I of Wildlife Protection Act 1972 and ‘Near Threatened’ on IUCN Red List. Population estimated <10,000.
Biodiversity conservation, protected areas, IUCN status, Wildlife Protection Act.
Q18. The rusty-spotted cat is listed under which Schedule of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972?
(a) Schedule I
(b) Schedule II
(c) Schedule III
(d) Schedule IV
(a) Schedule I
13. Hantavirus Outbreak: Public Health Preparedness
Hantavirus outbreak on MV Hondius cruise ship with 5 confirmed cases, 3 deaths. Andes strain—only variant with limited human-to-human transmission. India activated surveillance via ICMR-NIV and 165-lab network. WHO risk assessment: low. Hantavirus transmitted via rodent excreta in closed spaces. No specific treatment/vaccine.
Health governance, zoonotic diseases, One Health approach, International Health Regulations.
Q19. Hantavirus is primarily transmitted through:
(a) Airborne droplets
(b) Contaminated food
(c) Contact with infected rodent excreta
(d) Mosquito bites
(c) Contact with infected rodent excreta
Discuss the significance of the ‘One Health’ approach in preventing future zoonotic pandemics. How prepared is India? (GS-2/GS-3, 10 marks)
Prelims Factsheet Table
| Item | Key Fact | GS Paper |
|---|---|---|
| Kharif MSP | ₹2.6 lakh crore outlay, paddy ₹2,441/q | GS-3 |
| 131st CAA | Lok Sabha max 850 seats | GS-2 |
| Agni-5 MIRV | Range 5,000+ km, 3-6 warheads | GS-3 |
| Labour Codes | 29 laws into 4, gig workers covered | GS-2/3 |
| NEET-UG 2026 | Cancelled, CBI probe, Public Exam Act 2024 | GS-2 |
| Sabarimala | Art. 25, ERP doctrine review | GS-1/2 |
| 16th FC | 41% vertical, new GDP criterion | GS-2/3 |
| World Inequality | Top 10%: 58% income | GS-1 |
| AMOC | 59% slowdown by 2100, monsoon threat | GS-1 |
| Drishti | World’s 1st OptoSAR, GalaxEye | GS-3 |
| Rusty-spotted cat | Schedule I, Near Threatened | GS-3 |
| Hantavirus | Andes strain, ICMR surveillance | GS-2/3 |
| Panic buttons | SC order, Nirbhaya recommendations | GS-2 |
FAQs
Q1. What is the significance of delimitation in Indian polity?
Delimitation is the redrawing of constituency boundaries to ensure equal representation based on population. It is carried out by a Delimitation Commission after each census under Article 82. The 131st CAA 2026 enables delimitation using the 2011 Census data without waiting for a new census.
Q2. How does MIRV technology differ from conventional ballistic missiles?
MIRV-equipped missiles carry multiple independently targetable warheads that can strike different targets simultaneously, unlike conventional missiles carrying a single warhead. MIRVs complicate missile defence interception and enhance deterrence.
Q3. What is the ‘One Health’ approach?
One Health recognises the interconnection between human, animal, and environmental health. It is critical for preventing zoonotic diseases (like hantavirus, COVID-19, Nipah) through integrated surveillance and coordinated response across sectors.
Q4. What are the key concerns with the Labour Codes?
Concerns include: (a) definition of ‘wages’ (50% ceiling) may reduce take-home pay; (b) higher EPFO compliance cost for employers; (c) fixed-term employment may weaken job security; (d) state-centre coordination challenges as labour is Concurrent List subject.
Q5. Why is MSP reform needed despite ₹2.6 lakh crore outlay?
Only 6% of farmers benefit from MSP procurement, concentrated in paddy/wheat belts (Punjab, Haryana, UP). This skews cropping patterns, depletes groundwater, and violates WTO subsidy limits (AMS bound at 10%). Reforms must expand procurement to pulses/oilseeds and include eastern/central India.
Daily Current Affairs compiled by Soham IAS Academy | 14 May 2026
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